NISM Series V-A | Mock Test 6 | Solved MCQs 301 to 400 | Financial Planning Focus

NISM Series V-A: Mock Test 5 (Solved MCQs Part 2)


  1. A high turnover rate for a fund indicates: A) High transaction costs B) Greater efficiency C) High returns to the investor D) A rising market Answer: A) High transaction costs

  2. Turnover rates would be most relevant to analyse the performance of: A) Equity funds B) Growth funds C) Debt funds D) Value funds Answer: A) Equity funds

  3. Transaction costs include: A) All expenses related to trading B) All expenses charged to the fund C) Distribution expenses D) None of the above Answer: A) All expenses related to trading

  4. Which of the following are NOT included in Transaction costs? A) Brokerage commissions B) Stamp duty on transfers C) Custodian fees D) Agent commissions Answer: D) Agent commissions

  5. Which of the following transaction costs are not quantified in the offer document: A) Brokerage commissions B) Dealer spreads C) Custodian's fees D) Registrar's fees Answer: B) Dealer spreads

  6. The size of a fund has no bearing on its performance: A) True B) False Answer: B) False

  7. As per SEBI, mutual funds can borrow for short term to the extent of: A) Total net assets B) 50% of net assets C) 25% of net assets D) 20% of net assets Answer: D) 20% of net assets

  8. Which of the following is of no relevance in evaluating a fund's performance: A) Performance of the stock market B) Performance of other mutual funds C) Returns of comparable financial products D) Change in wholesale price index Answer: D) Change in wholesale price index

  9. The choice of an appropriate benchmark for evaluating a fund depends on: A) The fund manager B) The investment objective of the fund C) SEBI D) AMFI Answer: B) The investment objective of the fund

  10. An actively managed equity fund expects to: A) Be able to beat the benchmarks B) Earn the same returns as the benchmark C) Have no benchmarks D) Underperform the benchmark Answer: A) Be able to beat the benchmarks

  11. For evaluating funds, the preferred benchmark would be the: A) BSE Sensex B) S&P CNX Nifty C) BSE 200 D) S&P CNX Sectoral Indices Answer: C) BSE 200

  12. To evaluate a close-ended debt-fund, a suitable benchmark would be: A) BSE Sensex B) I-Sec's I-BEX C) Interest on bank FDs of similar maturity D) S&P CNX Defty Answer: C) Interest on bank FDs of similar maturity

  13. When comparing performance of two funds, the following need NOT be similar: A) Risk profiles B) Investment objectives C) Fund size D) Fund managers Answer: D) Fund managers

  14. Which of the following is false? A) ROI is similar to Total Return with Reinvestment B) Total Return with Reinvestment assumes reinvestment at NAV C) Total Return with Reinvestment seeks to overcome simple Total Return shortcomings D) Simple Total Return is preferred in practice to Total Return with Reinvestment Answer: D) Simple Total Return is preferred in practice to Total Return with Reinvestment

  15. The basis of genuine investment advice should be: A) Current market situation B) Agent commissions C) Financial planning to suit the investor's situation D) Planning to complete agent targets Answer: C) Financial planning to suit the investor's situation

  16. Financial goals do NOT include: A) Buying a home B) Winning a sports gold medal C) Planning for retirement D) Saving for child's education Answer: B) Winning a sports gold medal

  17. Financial planning allows a person: A) To become a billionaire B) To achieve financial goals through proper management of finances C) To invest in foreign countries D) None of the above Answer: B) To achieve financial goals through proper management of finances

  18. Financial plans do not alter in any way the amount of tax an investor pays: A) True B) False Answer: B) False

  19. Which of the following works with an investor on his overall financial situation: A) Tax Advisor B) Financial Planner C) Insurance Agent D) Financial Advisor Answer: B) Financial Planner

  20. A financial planner takes responsibility for the financial well-being of his/her clients: A) True B) False Answer: A) True

  21. Financial planners and their clients should focus on: A) Allocating funds to asset classes (e.g. debt, equity) B) Allocating funds to individual securities C) Tracking stocks they feel have potential D) None of the above Answer: A) Allocating funds to asset classes

  22. Within an asset class, which individual security to invest in should be decided by: A) The financial planner B) The investor himself C) A professional fund manager D) An objective advisor Answer: C) A professional fund manager

  23. Financial Planning comprises: A) Defining a client's profile and goals B) Recommending appropriate asset allocation C) Monitoring financial planning recommendations D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above

  24. Financial planning is relevant only for high networth individuals: A) True B) False Answer: B) False

  25. Financial planning does work for older clients: A) True B) False Answer: A) True

  26. Financial planning is primarily tax planning: A) True B) False Answer: B) False

  27. In financial planning, all responsibility ends with the financial planner and the client has no responsibilities: A) True B) False Answer: B) False

  28. The constraint on financial planning due to insufficient investable resources can be remedied by: A) Decreasing the standard of living B) Disciplining children C) Disciplined monthly budgeting D) None of the above Answer: C) Disciplined monthly budgeting

  29. In the growth option, the number of units held by an investor increases: A) True B) False Answer: B) False (The NAV increases, units remain the same).

  30. To maximise returns, once an investor buys into a fund, he/she should hold on no matter what happens: A) True B) False Answer: B) False

  31. If an investor keeps investing a fixed amount at regular intervals, the average cost will be less than if made at irregular periods: A) True B) False Answer: A) True (Rupee Cost Averaging).

  32. Which of the following lets an investor book profits in a rising market and increase holdings in a falling market: A) Fixed Rates of Asset Allocation B) Flexible Ratio of Asset Allocation C) Investment without asset allocation plan D) Buy and Hold Strategy Answer: B) Flexible Ratio of Asset Allocation

  33. A Flexible Ratio of Asset Allocation means: A) Continuously changing the ratio of various assets B) Not doing any re-balancing C) Active switching D) None of the above Answer: C) Active switching

  34. The strategy advisable for an investor to maximise investment return in the long run is: A) Buy and hold for a long time B) Liquidate poorly performing investments C) Liquidate good performing investments D) Switch from poor performers to good performers Answer: D) Switch from poor performers to good performers

  35. A criticism of rupee-cost averaging is: A) Investment is for the same amount B) Average purchase price will work out higher C) It does not tell you when to buy, sell or switch D) Rupee cost averaging has no shortcomings Answer: C) It does not tell you when to buy, sell or switch

  36. In India, individual investors do not have direct access to: A) Capital market instruments B) Real estate C) Bullion D) Money market instruments Answer: D) Money market instruments

  37. Which of the following entities can give loans against securities: A) UTI B) Banks C) Mutual funds D) None of the above Answer: B) Banks

  38. Which of the following investment products do not give guarantee for return or capital: A) Bank deposits B) Public provident fund (PPF) C) National Savings Certificates (NSC) D) Units of a mutual fund Answer: D) Units of a mutual fund

  39. The biggest advantage of investment in gold is: A) High returns B) High appreciation C) Low Purchase price D) Hedge against inflation Answer: D) Hedge against inflation

  40. The biggest disadvantage of investment in real estate is: A) Less potential for appreciation B) High purchase price C) Depreciation in value D) Value erosion by inflation Answer: B) High purchase price (Also Low Liquidity).

  41. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of bank deposits? A) Liquidity B) High perceived safety C) Low entry price D) High yield after tax Answer: D) High yield after tax

  42. Listing of shares at a stock exchange ensures: A) Guaranteed returns B) Long term appreciation C) Low risk D) High liquidity Answer: D) High liquidity

  43. The rate of interest paid by a company on debentures depends on: A) Stock market situation B) SEBI guidelines C) The company's credit rating D) The amount of money being raised Answer: C) The company's credit rating

  44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of company fixed deposits: A) Higher rate of interest B) Higher risk C) Unfavourable effect of tax D) Very high liquidity Answer: D) Very high liquidity

  45. Which of the following is untrue for Public Provident Fund Schemes: A) Interest is tax-free B) Post-tax returns are attractive C) Liquidity is rather low D) None of the above Answer: D) None of the above

  46. Indira Vikas Patra is an investment product popular with: A) Rural investors B) Investors in high tax bracket C) Urban investors D) Risk taking investors Answer: A) Rural investors

  47. Finance Acts of 2000 and 2001 reduced tax-free interest on Public Provident Fund to: A) 12% B) 10.5% C) 9% D) 11% Answer: C) 9%

  48. Most individuals invest in life insurance policies for: A) Risk protection B) Tax benefits C) Easy liquidity D) High returns Answer: A) Risk protection

  49. Annual contribution to Public Provident Fund should be: A) Rs. 10,000 B) Between Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,50,000 (Updated) C) Between Rs. 600 and Rs. 1,000 D) None of the above Answer: B) Between Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,50,000

  50. The current yield on Indira Vikas Patra (Historical) works out to: A) 10.5% B) 11% C) 10% D) 9% Answer: D) 9%

  51. The tenure of an Indira Vikas Patra is: A) 7 years B) 6 years C) 5 years D) 3 years Answer: C) 5 years

  52. The maturity period of RBI Relief Bonds is: A) 5 years B) 6 years C) 7 years D) 8 years Answer: A) 5 years

  53. The annual yield on RBI Relief Bonds is: A) 9.5% B) 9.5% before tax C) 8.5% before tax D) 8.5% after tax Answer: D) 8.5% after tax

  54. Individual investors do not normally invest in Government Securities because: A) Not allowed B) Investment amount required is very large C) Safety of principal not guaranteed D) None of the above Answer: B) Investment amount required is very large

  55. The amount an insurance company pays to the nominee if a policyholder died is: A) Premium B) Sum assured C) Face value D) Real value Answer: B) Sum assured

  56. Dividends distributed by mutual funds are: A) Taxed at source B) Taxed in the hands of the investors C) Subject to capital gains tax D) Tax-free Answer: B) Taxed in the hands of the investors (Updated Rule).

  57. Investing through mutual fund is better than direct stock market because: A) Identifying stocks is difficult B) Agents get commissions C) Returns are guaranteed D) All of the above Answer: A) Identifying stocks is difficult

  58. A small investor can build a diversified portfolio by: A) Buying one share of all companies B) Investing in a mutual fund C) Borrowing money D) None of the above Answer: B) Investing in a mutual fund

  59. Which is NOT an advantage of mutual fund investment over direct investment: A) Higher liquidity B) Lower transaction costs C) Greater convenience D) Guaranteed returns Answer: D) Guaranteed returns

  60. There is no contractual guarantee for repayment of principal or interest in: A) Bank deposit B) Debt fund C) Secured debentures D) All of the above Answer: B) Debt fund

  61. Which of the following debt investments is not rated: A) Corporate Bonds B) Commercial Paper C) Company Deposit D) Debt Fund Answer: D) Debt Fund (Securities inside are rated, not the fund itself).

  62. Gold and real estate are attractive options only in high inflation economies: A) True B) False Answer: A) True

  63. Direct investment can be better than mutual funds if the investor: A) Wants better returns B) Has large capital, knowledge and research resources C) Identified a bullish phase D) Wants to invest for long term Answer: B) Has large capital, knowledge and research resources

  64. Strategies like compounding and cost averaging depend on the: A) Stock market situation B) Amount to be invested C) Investor's risk tolerance D) Economic phase Answer: C) Investor's risk tolerance

  65. Financial Planning involves: A) Studying financial management B) Managing the risks of investing C) Financing client's investments D) None of the above Answer: B) Managing the risks of investing

  66. A higher risk portfolio guarantees higher returns: A) True B) False Answer: B) False (It only increases potential, not a guarantee).

  67. The risk tolerance of an investor is independent of: A) Age B) Income C) Stock market movements D) Job security Answer: C) Stock market movements

  68. A sector fund is a: A) Low risk fund B) Moderate risk fund C) High risk fund D) Low-to-moderate risk fund Answer: C) High risk fund

  69. International funds are low risk funds: A) True B) False Answer: B) False

  70. Investment in a precious metal fund falls in the high risk category: A) True B) False Answer: A) True

  71. By their very nature, growth funds are considered high risk funds: A) True B) False Answer: A) True

  72. Short Term bond funds are: A) Low risk funds B) Moderate risk funds C) High risk D) Market dependent Answer: A) Low risk funds

  73. The risk level of commodity funds is: A) High risk category B) Determined by commodity price movements C) Cannot be specified D) Low risk category Answer: B) Determined by commodity price movements

  74. Compared to a fund with fluctuating returns, a fund with stable positive earnings: A) Gives higher returns B) Is less risky C) Gives lower returns D) Is more risky Answer: B) Is less risky

  75. "Risk" is equated with: A) Volatility of earnings B) Level of earnings C) Number of investors D) Number of schemes Answer: A) Volatility of earnings

  76. Volatility of an equity fund portfolio is independent of the: A) Kind of stocks B) Degree of diversification C) Fund manager's market timing D) Number of investors in the scheme Answer: D) Number of investors in the scheme

  77. Equity price risks are: A) Company specific B) Market level C) Sector specific D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above

  78. Diversification reduces: A) Company specific risk B) Market level risk C) Both of the above D) None of the above Answer: A) Company specific risk

  79. Which of the following is most risky? A) Investing in a money market fund B) Investing in an index fund C) Short term investment in an equity fund D) Long term investment in an equity fund Answer: C) Short term investment in an equity fund

  80. A fund with a high beta coefficient is more risky in a falling market: A) True B) False Answer: A) True

  81. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Standard Deviation as a measure of risk: A) Measures total risk B) Based on past returns, doesn't necessarily indicate future performance C) Independent number D) Can measure all funds Answer: B) Based on past returns

  82. The role of an agent is to: A) Point out features/benefits B) Help the investor develop the right approach to investing C) Recommend some options D) Offer ad hoc advice Answer: B) Help the investor develop the right approach to investing

  83. One of the most effective ways to invest through mutual funds is to: A) Develop a model portfolio B) Buy a few units of every scheme C) Invest all money in one scheme D) Invest all money in one fund family Answer: A) Develop a model portfolio

  84. Mutual fund investors should be advised to expect: A) Low post tax returns B) Dramatic results C) Better returns than everything else D) Only realistic wealth accumulation goals Answer: D) Only realistic wealth accumulation goals

  85. Asset Allocation is: A) Physical certificate storage B) Allocating money to all securities C) Allocating right proportion to equity, debt and money market D) None of the above Answer: C) Allocating right proportion to equity, debt and money market

  86. Ideal Asset Allocation can be used for all investors: A) True B) False Answer: B) False (Must be customized).

  87. Asset distribution should correspond to capital growth, income and liquidity needs: A) True B) False Answer: A) True

  88. The liquidity needs of an investor are met through: A) Equity Funds B) Index Funds C) Money Market Funds D) Sector Funds Answer: C) Money Market Funds

  89. A retired person generally needs a greater proportion of: A) Debt funds B) Equity funds C) Money Market funds D) All of the above Answer: A) Debt funds (Plus some Money Market).

  90. To satisfy a young investor's need for growth, invest in: A) Gilt funds B) Income Funds C) Equity Growth funds D) Liquid funds Answer: C) Equity Growth funds

  91. A very high proportion of equity investment is advisable for investors in: A) Distribution phase B) Accumulation phase C) Transition phase D) Wealth preserving phase Answer: B) Accumulation phase

  92. The transition phase of an investor's wealth cycle is when: A) Goals already met B) Investor has retired C) Financial goals are approaching D) Sudden windfall Answer: C) Financial goals are approaching

  93. A high proportion of investment in income funds is required by investors in: A) Accumulating phase B) Affluent phase C) Inter-generational transfer phase D) Distribution phase Answer: D) Distribution phase

  94. Retired investors should: A) Not draw down capital B) Not invest in securities with risk of capital erosion C) Hold major portion in equity growth funds D) Never invest in equity Answer: B) Not invest in securities with risk of capital erosion

  95. For older investors transferring wealth, the right strategy depends on: A) No planning required B) Who the beneficiaries are C) The state of the stock market D) Aggressive equity focus Answer: B) Who the beneficiaries are

  96. Investors who acquire sudden wealth: A) Speculate with it all B) Should not invest in equity C) Should take the effect of taxes into account D) Need not pay taxes Answer: C) Take the effect of taxes into account

  97. Consistently good specialty offshore funds can be considered for investment by a retiree: A) True B) False Answer: B) False (Usually too risky for a retiree).

  98. Past performance should not be solely relied on for selecting a fund: A) True B) False Answer: A) True

  99. Suitability for an investor is more important than past performance: A) True B) False Answer: A) True

  100. Structural characterisations of an equity fund include: A) Costs of investing B) Specific securities invested in C) Number of AMC employees D) All of the above Answer: A) Costs of investing (Also Investment Objective).


Dhaval Visariya

AMFI Registered Distributor (ARN-327925) | Software Developer & Finance Enthusiast

Connect with me:
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Disclaimer: I am an AMFI Registered Mutual Fund Distributor. Views expressed here are for educational purposes. Mutual Fund investments are subject to market risks, read all scheme related documents carefully.
📧 Contact: info.apollofinancialservices@gmail.com

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